Tests for microbio
Page 1 of 1
Tests for microbio
Betty Mon Oct 31, 2011 11:54 pm
Don't know which tests are for when...Just compiled all of them here
---------------------------------
1)Hemophilius influenzae needs:
a.Factor V for cultivation
b.Factor X
c.Factor X and V
d.No factors
2)The invasive form of Hemophilius Influenzae is:
a
b
f
d
3)Bacillar dysenteriae can be trasmitted by
a)human carriers
b)insect carriers
c)food borne
4)Lactose positive cultures are
a.Pink
b.grey
c.colourless
d.red
5)Vibrio cholerae is cultivated in
a)Telurite medium
b)Peptone water
c)Wilson Blair agar
6)Pseudomonas aeroginosa infections respond to most antibiotics:
a)very well
b)show multiple resistance
c)do not need antibiotic treament
7)The main factor of pathogenicity of H.influenzae is
a)capsule
b)flagella
c)....
8)Pontiac Fever is caused by
a)Legionella pneumophilia
b)K pneumoniae
...
9)Yersinia Pestis causes
a)Plague
b)diarrhoea
...
10)Shigella affects:
a)small bowel
b)gaster
c)large bowel
..
11)In the case of Typhoid fever, specimens are collected from
a)feces
b)urine
c)blood
d)blood for antigen detection
12)Endotoxins are
a)O antigen
b)capsule
c)core protein
13)If a bacteria expresses H antigen it is:
a)motile
b)resistant
c)...
14)Lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients are frequently caused by:
a)Klebsiella Pneumoniae
b)Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
c)...
15)Which one of these is a gram negative, non-spore forming, capsule forming and non motile
bacteria:
a)Klebsiella
b)E coli
...
16)Which of the following shows satellite phenomenon:
a)Salmonella
b)H influenzae
c)H ducreyi
Version I
1)Mycobacterium TBC belongs to:
a.Gram + cocci
b.gram- motile bacteria
c.acid fast bacilli
d.fungi
2)What is the name of acid fast bacilli staining:
a.Gram
b.Neisser
c.Ziehl Neelsen
d.Albert
3)Mycobacterium tuberculosis belongs to:
a.rapidly growing bacteria
b.slowly growing bacteria
c.the group of mycobacteria which are not possible to be cultivated in cell-free medium
4)Mycobacterium Leprae is
a.gram- spore forming bacillus
b.gram+ anaerobe spore forming bacillus
c.acid fast bacillus
d.oxidase positive rod belonging among Vibrio
5)In pulmonaru tuberculosis mycobacterium can be isolated from:
a.salive
b.sputum
c.blood
6)Mycobacteria are susceptible to the following disinfectants:
a.0.5% Persteril for 30 min exposure
b.2%Ajatin for two hours
c.3% chloramin for four hours
7)Which organism is a common cause of food poisoning?
a.Clostridium speticum
b.C histolyticum
c.C.perfringens
d.C. sporogenes
8)Clostridium perfringens can cause:
a.food poisoning
b.gas gangrene
c.necrotizing colitis
d.enteritis necrotisans
9)Which species of the genus Clostridium can cause antibiotics-induced pseudomembranous colitis?
a.C botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.C tetani
10)Which organism produces a neurotoxin?
a.C. botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.Fusobaterium nucleatum
e.Peptostreptococcus anaerobus
Version II
1)Culture medium used for Mycobacteria cultivation is:
a.blood agar
b.Wilson Blair agar
c.Lowenstein Jensen agar
2)Myconacterium is:
a.gram-, motile anaerobic rod
b.gram+, spore forming anaerobic bacillus
c.acid-fast,non-motile, non-spore forming, strictly aerobic rod
3)Mycobacterium Leprae is
a.gram- spore forming bacillus
b.gram+ anaerobe spore forming bacillus
c.acid fast bacillua
d.oxidase+ rod belonging among vibrio
4)Immunization with BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of
a.TB
b.diphteria
c.cholera
5)Vaccination against TB is performed with:
a.anti-mycobacterial antitoxin
b.virulent strain of MTBC
c.BCG strain
6)Among antituberculotic drugs does not belong
a.streptomycin
b.INH
c.rifampicin
d.penicillin
7)Which organism produces a neurotoxin?
a.C. botulinum
b.C.perfringens
c.C difficile
d.Fusobacterium nucleatum
8)Spores can be stained by
a)Gram
b)Ziehl Neelsen
c)Wirtz-Conklin
9)Tetanus can be prevented by
a.administration of hyperimmune globulin
b.specific anti-clostridial chemotherapy
c.injections of tetanus toxoid
10)Which organism produces enzyme or toxins that cause extensive tissue necrosis
a.C. Botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.C tetani
Microbiology Test: Group A (Image 23,24,25,55)
1. Typical clinical signs of Chaga's disease (adult people) are:
a) cardial symptoms
b) people are symptom less
c) high parasitemia in the blood
d) meningoencephalitis
2. Which of the genera belong to yeasts:
a) Aspergillus
b) Trachphyton
c) Candida
d) Mucor
e) Saccharomycoses
3. The first multiplication of plasmodia takes place in:
a) red blood cells
b) hepatocytes
c) white blood cells
d) the brain
4. Drug of choice for the treatment of (fungal infections):
a) griseofulvin
b) …
c) amphotericin B
d ) fluconazol
e) flucytosin
5. The trophozoit (of parasites) is:
a) vegetative stage
b) sleeping stage
c) very resistant to environmental influences
d) very sensitive to digestive juices
6. What fungal cell structure is inhibited with majority of clinically anti-mycotics:
a) cell wall
b) plasmatic membrane
c) nucleus
d) mitochondria
e) plasmid
7. The Iodamoeba bütschli is:
a) non-pathogenic amoeba
b) causative agent of tropical dysentery
c) causative agent of dental caries
d) causative agent of cutaneous inflammations
8. The amoebic abscess is:
a) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica
c) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba dipar
c) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba coli
d) intestinal form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica
9. Main clinical form of cryptococcosis involves:
a) brain
b) intestine
c)skin
d) lungs
e) …
10. Which of the following pair(s) is(are) true:
a) skin specimen – KOH
b) blood culture – parasites
c) mycoses – penicillin
d)aspergilla – aflatoxin
e) Candida albicans - …
11. Transition of Giardia intestinalis is through:
a) contaminated water
b) contaminated food
c) insect bites
d) contaminated hands
12. The Trichomonas vaginalis:
a) always has a cyst stage
b) never has a cyst stage
c) has cyst stage only in (the) low pH
13. The main etiology of fungal skin infections are:
a) dimorphic fungi
b) staphylococci
c) yeasts
d) dermatophytes
e) aspergilli
14. The main morphologic structure of fungal body is:
a) conoid
b) yeast (=blastospore)
c) pseudohyphae
d) coccoid
e) hyphae
15. Which fungus is frequent cause of vulvovaginitis:
A) Aspergillus fumigates
b) Candidas albicans
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
e) Trichophyton …
16. The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondi is:
a) the cat
b) the dog
c) the cat, the dog and other cadavers
d) the mouse
17. The typical symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis are:
a) diarrhea
b) intracerebral calcifications
c) chorioretinitis
d) psychomotor disturbances
e) hydrocephaly
18. The common etiologic … … … mycoses in AIDS patient are: (what type infects AIDS patients)
a) Pneumocystis …
b) Myco …
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Cryptococcus neoformans
e) Candida albicans
19. The common cause of a life-threatening respiratory mycoses with high mortality rate (>50%) is :
a) dimorphic fungi
b) aspergilla
c) Cryptococcus
d) dermatophytes
e) staphylococci
20. The causative agent of tropical dysentery is:
a) Entamoeba coli
b) Entamoeba dispar
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Endolimax nana
21. Free living parasites dangerous for people are:
a) Acantamoeba culbertsoni
b) Dienetamoeba fragilis
c) Negleria fowleri
d) Trichomonas tenax
22. Hypnozoites (sleeping stage) in the liver my develop in:
a) Plasmodium ovale species
b) Plasmodium vivax species
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium falciparum
23. In the normal infection with Plasmodium vivax or ovale we can find in peripheral blood:
a) all of stages of developing cycle
b) only ring forms
c) ring form and … gametocytes
d) only gametocytes
e) only mature schizonts
24. The first stage of malarial paroxysm is named:
a) cold stage
b) hot stage
25. For infections with Plasmodium falciparum is typical:
a) very low parasitemia (less than 1%)
b) high parasitemia (usually a few percent)
c) parasitemia .. … 75%
d) 100% of erythrocytes are affected
-----------------------------------------
Group B (Image 14,19,20,22)
1.Vectors of infections with african tryptosoma are:
a) anopheles …
b) Glossiniae (palpalis and others)
c) Tsetse flies
d) Contaminated water
2. The common cause of a life-threatening respiratory mycosis with high mortality rate (>50%) in transplant recipients are:
a) dimorphig fungi
b) aspergilla
c) cryptococci
d) dermatophytes
e) staphylococci
3. The cyst (of …) is:
a) vegetative stage
b) sleeping stage
c) very resistant to environmental conditions
d) very sensitive to digestive juices
4. The basic morphologic structure of fungal body (…) is:
a) conidium
b) yeast (=blastospore)
c) pseudohyphae
d) hyphae
e) coccus
5. The Entamoeba coli is:
a) nonpathogenic amoeba
b) causative agent of tropical dysentery
c) causative agent of dental caries
d) causative agent of cutaneous infections
6. Which fungus is a frequent cause of vulvovaginitis:
a) Candida albicans
b) Aspergillus fumigates
c) Cryptococcus
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
e) Trichophyton …
7. The causative agent of tropical dysentery is:
a) Entamoeba coli
b) Entamoeba dispar
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Endolimax nana
8. Free living parasites dangerous for people are:
a) Acantamoeba culbertsoni
b) Dienetamoeba fragilis
c) Negleria fowleri
d) Trichomonas tenax
9. Selective (…) mycological medium is:
a) blood agar
b) Löwenstein-Jensen agar
c) Deoxycholate agar
d) Mac Conkey agar
e) Sabouraud agar
10. The common etiologic … … … mycoses in AIDS patient are: (what type infects AIDS patients)
a) Pneumocystis jirovecii
b) Mycobacterium … intracellulare ?
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Cryptococcus neoformans
e) Candida
11. The causative agent of … vaginitis is:
a) Trichomonas tenax
b) Trichomonas hominis
c) Trichomonas vaginitis
d) Entamoeba vaginalis
12. For cultivation of Trichomonas vaginalis we use:
a) CAT medium
b) RPM/RFM medium
c) Blood agar
d) Human serum
13. Which of the gr..s belongs to the dematophytes:
a) Aspergillus
b)Trichophyton
c) Candidas
d) Cryptococcus
e) bifido…
14. Chose the most powerful antimycotic drug:
a) griseofulvin
b) …
c) amphotericin B
d) ketoconazole
e) flucytosine
15. Which fungal structure is inhibited with majority of clinically used anti-mycotics:
a) cell wall
b) nucleus
c) cell membrane
d) mitochondria
e) plasmid
16. Sexual stages of Toxoplasma gondi are named:
a) tachyzoites
b) bradyzoites
c) epimastozoites ?
d) oocytes
17. The blood sample for PCR … of Toxoplasma gondi … is necessary to take:
a) before treatment
b) after treatment
c) it does not matter
d) 1 month after treatment in …
18. Whick of the following pair(s) is(are) true?
a) skin specimen – KOH
b) capsula – cryptococi
c) mycosis – penicillin
d) aspergilla – aflatoxin
e)Candida albicans – vulvovaginitis
19. Aspergilli particularly cause … infections (…) of:
a) brain
b) intestine
c) skin
d) lungs
e) blood …
20. Typical clinical signs of the late Chagas’s disease (adult people) are:
a) cardial symptoms
b) people are symptom less
c) high parasitemia in the blood
d) meningoencephalitis
21. Transmission of Giardia intestinalis is through:
a) contaminated water
b) contaminated food
c) insect bites
d) contaminated hands
22. The erythrocyte cycle in species Pl. ovale is:
a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 96 hours
d) 12 hours
23. Malarial g… … of endothelium of gl … ey, kein plan!!
a) …
b) …
c) it doesn’t exist
d) …
24. Late relapse of malaria can develop in:
a) Plasmodium malariae
b) Plasmodium ovale
c) Plasmodium vivax
d) Plasmodium falciparum
25. The typical symptoms of … congenital toxoplasmosis are:
a) diarrhea
b) intracerebral calcifications
c) chorioretinitis
d) psychomotor disturbances
e) hydrocephaly
1)Blood and blood products are controlled for the following infections:
Syphillis
Hep B and C
HIV
2)The early serological marker of HBV infection is:
anti HAV IgM
HBs Ag
Anti-HBs antibodies
Protein 24
3)HIV can be transmitted by
Food
Sperma
Insect Bite
Water
4)Vaccination is performed to prevent:
Heb B
Hep C
Rubella
5)Hemaglutinin and neuraminidase are present in:
Influenza Virus
HSV type 2
Adenovirus
6)Immunofluorescence technique uses:
Phase contrast mic
Inversion mic
UV light mic
Stereo mic
7)Infectious mononucleosis is caused by
Morbilli v
Cox A v
HSV 2
EBV
8)Changes in morphology of cell culture caused by viral replication are called
Cytopathic effect
Interference
neutralizing effect
-----------------------------
1. HIV can be transmitted by:
a) food
b) blood
c) sperma
d) insect bite
2. Protection against Hepatitis B after vaccination is diagnosed by:
a) anti-HAV antibodies
b) HBeAg
c) Anti-HBs antibodies
d) vaccination against Hepatitis B is not performed
3. Amnion and allantoin fluid of embryonated eggs are used for isolation of:
a) rubella virus
b) influenza virus
c) cytomegalovirus
4. The presence of IgG but not IgM antibodies to rubella in the newborn suggests:
a) congenital infection
b) autoimmune disease
c) persistent infection
d) presence of maternal antibodies
5. Which statement is true for herpes simplex virus:
a) replicates in the nucleus
b) is frequently associated with laten infection
c) is activated by stress
d) may invade the CNS
6. Rotavirus can cause severe:
a) hepatitis in adults
b) gastroenteritis in children
c) influenza in older patients
d) congenital abnormalities in pregnant women
7. HBV is often transmitted by:
a) fecal-oral transmission
b) vertical transmission from pregnant women to the fetus
c) by contaminated blood
d) by sexual contact
8. Among blood born viruses belong
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B and C viruses
c) Hepatitis A and E viruses
d) Rotavirus
1)Hemophilius influenzae needs:
a.Factor V for cultivation
b.Factor X
c.Factor X and V - CORRECT
d.No factors
2)The invasive form of Hemophilius Influenzae is:
a
b - CORRECT
f
d
3)Bacillar dysenteriae can be trasmitted by
a)human carriers - CORRECT
b)insect carriers
d)household pets
4)Lactose positive cultures are
a.pink - CORRECT
b.grey
c.colourless
d.red
5)Vibrio cholerae is cultivated in
a)Telurite medium
b)Peptone water - CORRECT
c)Wilson Blair agar
6)Pseudomonas aeroginosa infections respond to most antibiotics:
a)very well
b)show multiple resistance - CORRECT
c)do not need antibiotic treament
7)The main factor of pathogenicity of H.influenzae is
a)capsule - CORRECT
b)flagella
c)....
8)Pontiac Fever is caused by
a)Legionella pneumophilia - CORRECT
b)K pneumoniae
...
9)Yersinia Pestis causes
a)Plague - CORRECT
b)diarrhoea
...
10)Shigella affects:
a)small bowel - CORRECT
b)gaster
c)large bowel
..
11)In the case of Typhoid fever, specimens are collected from
a)feces - CORRECT
b)urine
c)blood - CORRECT
d)blood for antigen detection
12)Endotoxins are
a)O antigen -CORRECT
b)capsule
c)core protein
13)If a bacteria expresses H antigen it is:
a)motile - CORRECT
b)resistant
c)...
14)Lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients are frequently caused by:
a)Klebsiella Pneumoniae
b)Pseudomonas Aeruginosa - CORRECT
c)...
15)Which one of these is a gram negative, non-spore forming, capsule forming and non motile ...
bacteria:
a)Klebsiella
b)E coli
...
16)Which of the following shows satellite phenomenon:
a)Salmonella
b)H influenzae - CORRECT
c)H ducreyi (there was sumthin about this in TEST B)
---------------------------------
1)Hemophilius influenzae needs:
a.Factor V for cultivation
b.Factor X
c.Factor X and V
d.No factors
2)The invasive form of Hemophilius Influenzae is:
a
b
f
d
3)Bacillar dysenteriae can be trasmitted by
a)human carriers
b)insect carriers
c)food borne
4)Lactose positive cultures are
a.Pink
b.grey
c.colourless
d.red
5)Vibrio cholerae is cultivated in
a)Telurite medium
b)Peptone water
c)Wilson Blair agar
6)Pseudomonas aeroginosa infections respond to most antibiotics:
a)very well
b)show multiple resistance
c)do not need antibiotic treament
7)The main factor of pathogenicity of H.influenzae is
a)capsule
b)flagella
c)....
8)Pontiac Fever is caused by
a)Legionella pneumophilia
b)K pneumoniae
...
9)Yersinia Pestis causes
a)Plague
b)diarrhoea
...
10)Shigella affects:
a)small bowel
b)gaster
c)large bowel
..
11)In the case of Typhoid fever, specimens are collected from
a)feces
b)urine
c)blood
d)blood for antigen detection
12)Endotoxins are
a)O antigen
b)capsule
c)core protein
13)If a bacteria expresses H antigen it is:
a)motile
b)resistant
c)...
14)Lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients are frequently caused by:
a)Klebsiella Pneumoniae
b)Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
c)...
15)Which one of these is a gram negative, non-spore forming, capsule forming and non motile
bacteria:
a)Klebsiella
b)E coli
...
16)Which of the following shows satellite phenomenon:
a)Salmonella
b)H influenzae
c)H ducreyi
Version I
1)Mycobacterium TBC belongs to:
a.Gram + cocci
b.gram- motile bacteria
c.acid fast bacilli
d.fungi
2)What is the name of acid fast bacilli staining:
a.Gram
b.Neisser
c.Ziehl Neelsen
d.Albert
3)Mycobacterium tuberculosis belongs to:
a.rapidly growing bacteria
b.slowly growing bacteria
c.the group of mycobacteria which are not possible to be cultivated in cell-free medium
4)Mycobacterium Leprae is
a.gram- spore forming bacillus
b.gram+ anaerobe spore forming bacillus
c.acid fast bacillus
d.oxidase positive rod belonging among Vibrio
5)In pulmonaru tuberculosis mycobacterium can be isolated from:
a.salive
b.sputum
c.blood
6)Mycobacteria are susceptible to the following disinfectants:
a.0.5% Persteril for 30 min exposure
b.2%Ajatin for two hours
c.3% chloramin for four hours
7)Which organism is a common cause of food poisoning?
a.Clostridium speticum
b.C histolyticum
c.C.perfringens
d.C. sporogenes
8)Clostridium perfringens can cause:
a.food poisoning
b.gas gangrene
c.necrotizing colitis
d.enteritis necrotisans
9)Which species of the genus Clostridium can cause antibiotics-induced pseudomembranous colitis?
a.C botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.C tetani
10)Which organism produces a neurotoxin?
a.C. botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.Fusobaterium nucleatum
e.Peptostreptococcus anaerobus
Version II
1)Culture medium used for Mycobacteria cultivation is:
a.blood agar
b.Wilson Blair agar
c.Lowenstein Jensen agar
2)Myconacterium is:
a.gram-, motile anaerobic rod
b.gram+, spore forming anaerobic bacillus
c.acid-fast,non-motile, non-spore forming, strictly aerobic rod
3)Mycobacterium Leprae is
a.gram- spore forming bacillus
b.gram+ anaerobe spore forming bacillus
c.acid fast bacillua
d.oxidase+ rod belonging among vibrio
4)Immunization with BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of
a.TB
b.diphteria
c.cholera
5)Vaccination against TB is performed with:
a.anti-mycobacterial antitoxin
b.virulent strain of MTBC
c.BCG strain
6)Among antituberculotic drugs does not belong
a.streptomycin
b.INH
c.rifampicin
d.penicillin
7)Which organism produces a neurotoxin?
a.C. botulinum
b.C.perfringens
c.C difficile
d.Fusobacterium nucleatum
8)Spores can be stained by
a)Gram
b)Ziehl Neelsen
c)Wirtz-Conklin
9)Tetanus can be prevented by
a.administration of hyperimmune globulin
b.specific anti-clostridial chemotherapy
c.injections of tetanus toxoid
10)Which organism produces enzyme or toxins that cause extensive tissue necrosis
a.C. Botulinum
b.C perfringens
c.C difficile
d.C tetani
Microbiology Test: Group A (Image 23,24,25,55)
1. Typical clinical signs of Chaga's disease (adult people) are:
a) cardial symptoms
b) people are symptom less
c) high parasitemia in the blood
d) meningoencephalitis
2. Which of the genera belong to yeasts:
a) Aspergillus
b) Trachphyton
c) Candida
d) Mucor
e) Saccharomycoses
3. The first multiplication of plasmodia takes place in:
a) red blood cells
b) hepatocytes
c) white blood cells
d) the brain
4. Drug of choice for the treatment of (fungal infections):
a) griseofulvin
b) …
c) amphotericin B
d ) fluconazol
e) flucytosin
5. The trophozoit (of parasites) is:
a) vegetative stage
b) sleeping stage
c) very resistant to environmental influences
d) very sensitive to digestive juices
6. What fungal cell structure is inhibited with majority of clinically anti-mycotics:
a) cell wall
b) plasmatic membrane
c) nucleus
d) mitochondria
e) plasmid
7. The Iodamoeba bütschli is:
a) non-pathogenic amoeba
b) causative agent of tropical dysentery
c) causative agent of dental caries
d) causative agent of cutaneous inflammations
8. The amoebic abscess is:
a) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica
c) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba dipar
c) extraintestinal form of infection with Entamoeba coli
d) intestinal form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica
9. Main clinical form of cryptococcosis involves:
a) brain
b) intestine
c)skin
d) lungs
e) …
10. Which of the following pair(s) is(are) true:
a) skin specimen – KOH
b) blood culture – parasites
c) mycoses – penicillin
d)aspergilla – aflatoxin
e) Candida albicans - …
11. Transition of Giardia intestinalis is through:
a) contaminated water
b) contaminated food
c) insect bites
d) contaminated hands
12. The Trichomonas vaginalis:
a) always has a cyst stage
b) never has a cyst stage
c) has cyst stage only in (the) low pH
13. The main etiology of fungal skin infections are:
a) dimorphic fungi
b) staphylococci
c) yeasts
d) dermatophytes
e) aspergilli
14. The main morphologic structure of fungal body is:
a) conoid
b) yeast (=blastospore)
c) pseudohyphae
d) coccoid
e) hyphae
15. Which fungus is frequent cause of vulvovaginitis:
A) Aspergillus fumigates
b) Candidas albicans
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
e) Trichophyton …
16. The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondi is:
a) the cat
b) the dog
c) the cat, the dog and other cadavers
d) the mouse
17. The typical symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis are:
a) diarrhea
b) intracerebral calcifications
c) chorioretinitis
d) psychomotor disturbances
e) hydrocephaly
18. The common etiologic … … … mycoses in AIDS patient are: (what type infects AIDS patients)
a) Pneumocystis …
b) Myco …
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Cryptococcus neoformans
e) Candida albicans
19. The common cause of a life-threatening respiratory mycoses with high mortality rate (>50%) is :
a) dimorphic fungi
b) aspergilla
c) Cryptococcus
d) dermatophytes
e) staphylococci
20. The causative agent of tropical dysentery is:
a) Entamoeba coli
b) Entamoeba dispar
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Endolimax nana
21. Free living parasites dangerous for people are:
a) Acantamoeba culbertsoni
b) Dienetamoeba fragilis
c) Negleria fowleri
d) Trichomonas tenax
22. Hypnozoites (sleeping stage) in the liver my develop in:
a) Plasmodium ovale species
b) Plasmodium vivax species
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium falciparum
23. In the normal infection with Plasmodium vivax or ovale we can find in peripheral blood:
a) all of stages of developing cycle
b) only ring forms
c) ring form and … gametocytes
d) only gametocytes
e) only mature schizonts
24. The first stage of malarial paroxysm is named:
a) cold stage
b) hot stage
25. For infections with Plasmodium falciparum is typical:
a) very low parasitemia (less than 1%)
b) high parasitemia (usually a few percent)
c) parasitemia .. … 75%
d) 100% of erythrocytes are affected
-----------------------------------------
Group B (Image 14,19,20,22)
1.Vectors of infections with african tryptosoma are:
a) anopheles …
b) Glossiniae (palpalis and others)
c) Tsetse flies
d) Contaminated water
2. The common cause of a life-threatening respiratory mycosis with high mortality rate (>50%) in transplant recipients are:
a) dimorphig fungi
b) aspergilla
c) cryptococci
d) dermatophytes
e) staphylococci
3. The cyst (of …) is:
a) vegetative stage
b) sleeping stage
c) very resistant to environmental conditions
d) very sensitive to digestive juices
4. The basic morphologic structure of fungal body (…) is:
a) conidium
b) yeast (=blastospore)
c) pseudohyphae
d) hyphae
e) coccus
5. The Entamoeba coli is:
a) nonpathogenic amoeba
b) causative agent of tropical dysentery
c) causative agent of dental caries
d) causative agent of cutaneous infections
6. Which fungus is a frequent cause of vulvovaginitis:
a) Candida albicans
b) Aspergillus fumigates
c) Cryptococcus
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
e) Trichophyton …
7. The causative agent of tropical dysentery is:
a) Entamoeba coli
b) Entamoeba dispar
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Endolimax nana
8. Free living parasites dangerous for people are:
a) Acantamoeba culbertsoni
b) Dienetamoeba fragilis
c) Negleria fowleri
d) Trichomonas tenax
9. Selective (…) mycological medium is:
a) blood agar
b) Löwenstein-Jensen agar
c) Deoxycholate agar
d) Mac Conkey agar
e) Sabouraud agar
10. The common etiologic … … … mycoses in AIDS patient are: (what type infects AIDS patients)
a) Pneumocystis jirovecii
b) Mycobacterium … intracellulare ?
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Cryptococcus neoformans
e) Candida
11. The causative agent of … vaginitis is:
a) Trichomonas tenax
b) Trichomonas hominis
c) Trichomonas vaginitis
d) Entamoeba vaginalis
12. For cultivation of Trichomonas vaginalis we use:
a) CAT medium
b) RPM/RFM medium
c) Blood agar
d) Human serum
13. Which of the gr..s belongs to the dematophytes:
a) Aspergillus
b)Trichophyton
c) Candidas
d) Cryptococcus
e) bifido…
14. Chose the most powerful antimycotic drug:
a) griseofulvin
b) …
c) amphotericin B
d) ketoconazole
e) flucytosine
15. Which fungal structure is inhibited with majority of clinically used anti-mycotics:
a) cell wall
b) nucleus
c) cell membrane
d) mitochondria
e) plasmid
16. Sexual stages of Toxoplasma gondi are named:
a) tachyzoites
b) bradyzoites
c) epimastozoites ?
d) oocytes
17. The blood sample for PCR … of Toxoplasma gondi … is necessary to take:
a) before treatment
b) after treatment
c) it does not matter
d) 1 month after treatment in …
18. Whick of the following pair(s) is(are) true?
a) skin specimen – KOH
b) capsula – cryptococi
c) mycosis – penicillin
d) aspergilla – aflatoxin
e)Candida albicans – vulvovaginitis
19. Aspergilli particularly cause … infections (…) of:
a) brain
b) intestine
c) skin
d) lungs
e) blood …
20. Typical clinical signs of the late Chagas’s disease (adult people) are:
a) cardial symptoms
b) people are symptom less
c) high parasitemia in the blood
d) meningoencephalitis
21. Transmission of Giardia intestinalis is through:
a) contaminated water
b) contaminated food
c) insect bites
d) contaminated hands
22. The erythrocyte cycle in species Pl. ovale is:
a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 96 hours
d) 12 hours
23. Malarial g… … of endothelium of gl … ey, kein plan!!
a) …
b) …
c) it doesn’t exist
d) …
24. Late relapse of malaria can develop in:
a) Plasmodium malariae
b) Plasmodium ovale
c) Plasmodium vivax
d) Plasmodium falciparum
25. The typical symptoms of … congenital toxoplasmosis are:
a) diarrhea
b) intracerebral calcifications
c) chorioretinitis
d) psychomotor disturbances
e) hydrocephaly
1)Blood and blood products are controlled for the following infections:
Syphillis
Hep B and C
HIV
2)The early serological marker of HBV infection is:
anti HAV IgM
HBs Ag
Anti-HBs antibodies
Protein 24
3)HIV can be transmitted by
Food
Sperma
Insect Bite
Water
4)Vaccination is performed to prevent:
Heb B
Hep C
Rubella
5)Hemaglutinin and neuraminidase are present in:
Influenza Virus
HSV type 2
Adenovirus
6)Immunofluorescence technique uses:
Phase contrast mic
Inversion mic
UV light mic
Stereo mic
7)Infectious mononucleosis is caused by
Morbilli v
Cox A v
HSV 2
EBV
8)Changes in morphology of cell culture caused by viral replication are called
Cytopathic effect
Interference
neutralizing effect
-----------------------------
1. HIV can be transmitted by:
a) food
b) blood
c) sperma
d) insect bite
2. Protection against Hepatitis B after vaccination is diagnosed by:
a) anti-HAV antibodies
b) HBeAg
c) Anti-HBs antibodies
d) vaccination against Hepatitis B is not performed
3. Amnion and allantoin fluid of embryonated eggs are used for isolation of:
a) rubella virus
b) influenza virus
c) cytomegalovirus
4. The presence of IgG but not IgM antibodies to rubella in the newborn suggests:
a) congenital infection
b) autoimmune disease
c) persistent infection
d) presence of maternal antibodies
5. Which statement is true for herpes simplex virus:
a) replicates in the nucleus
b) is frequently associated with laten infection
c) is activated by stress
d) may invade the CNS
6. Rotavirus can cause severe:
a) hepatitis in adults
b) gastroenteritis in children
c) influenza in older patients
d) congenital abnormalities in pregnant women
7. HBV is often transmitted by:
a) fecal-oral transmission
b) vertical transmission from pregnant women to the fetus
c) by contaminated blood
d) by sexual contact
8. Among blood born viruses belong
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B and C viruses
c) Hepatitis A and E viruses
d) Rotavirus
1)Hemophilius influenzae needs:
a.Factor V for cultivation
b.Factor X
c.Factor X and V - CORRECT
d.No factors
2)The invasive form of Hemophilius Influenzae is:
a
b - CORRECT
f
d
3)Bacillar dysenteriae can be trasmitted by
a)human carriers - CORRECT
b)insect carriers
d)household pets
4)Lactose positive cultures are
a.pink - CORRECT
b.grey
c.colourless
d.red
5)Vibrio cholerae is cultivated in
a)Telurite medium
b)Peptone water - CORRECT
c)Wilson Blair agar
6)Pseudomonas aeroginosa infections respond to most antibiotics:
a)very well
b)show multiple resistance - CORRECT
c)do not need antibiotic treament
7)The main factor of pathogenicity of H.influenzae is
a)capsule - CORRECT
b)flagella
c)....
8)Pontiac Fever is caused by
a)Legionella pneumophilia - CORRECT
b)K pneumoniae
...
9)Yersinia Pestis causes
a)Plague - CORRECT
b)diarrhoea
...
10)Shigella affects:
a)small bowel - CORRECT
b)gaster
c)large bowel
..
11)In the case of Typhoid fever, specimens are collected from
a)feces - CORRECT
b)urine
c)blood - CORRECT
d)blood for antigen detection
12)Endotoxins are
a)O antigen -CORRECT
b)capsule
c)core protein
13)If a bacteria expresses H antigen it is:
a)motile - CORRECT
b)resistant
c)...
14)Lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients are frequently caused by:
a)Klebsiella Pneumoniae
b)Pseudomonas Aeruginosa - CORRECT
c)...
15)Which one of these is a gram negative, non-spore forming, capsule forming and non motile ...
bacteria:
a)Klebsiella
b)E coli
...
16)Which of the following shows satellite phenomenon:
a)Salmonella
b)H influenzae - CORRECT
c)H ducreyi (there was sumthin about this in TEST B)
Betty- Number of posts : 75
Registration date : 2008-11-01
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